OT: small theory question

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wrench45us
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2005/12/07 08:26:59 (permalink)

OT: small theory question


promise not to get into anopther whomping discussion

the link grandpa mojo provided defintely has provided sufficient material to get me through the long dark winter

http://www.angelfire.com/fl4/moneychords/lesson.html

but last night I focused in on
http://www.playpiano.com/101-tips/38-gospel-chord-progression-2.htm

gospel progression IV of IV IV I


now the circle of 5ths gets a lot of use and with my dubious past banjo playing it certainly was used a lot in rags and dixieland. and one way to express minor excursions into the circle of 5ths is V of V. And it has that characteristic major sound but bouncing along with implied key changes

but last night was my 1st exposure to IV of IV. so I'm guessing there's a circle of 4ths out there somewhere as well. And it does have a particular bluesy sort of gospel sound. I'd just like to know why. If it's possible to explain why a IV of IV to IV is kind of bluesy. I'm assuming it has to have something to do with the implied key change -- maybe flattening the 'blues' notes in the implied key???

oh and by the way i sorted out how to play the walking up by 10ths 2nd part and it had so little resemblance to what he plays in that video clip, it's just sad my lack of keyboard skills


 


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    gourdjopy
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    RE: OT: small theory question 2005/12/07 09:07:29 (permalink)
    forgive me if i'm saying a lot of stuff you know already.

    the IV of IV is has a blues feel for a number of reasons. most of them have to do with the fact that you're setting up a false cadence that seems to make the IV chord a resolution (since gospel is as likely to resolve from IV-I as it is to resolve from V-I). a lot of blues and jazz uses the retrograde circle of 5ths movement (C-F-Bb-Eb-Ab-etc.) which as you can see, is a circle of 4ths.

    a) when you're using a fourth substitution with triads, the IV of IV in F is a Bb triad, which is pulling in the dominant seventh note from C (and blues uses dominant 7ths a lot, as you know)

    b) if you're using dominant 7th chords, the IV of IV has the flat 3rd degree in it. in other words, if you're in C, and playing a blues, when you substitute in a Bb7 over the F7, you're picking up an Ab, which would ordinarily be way out of key, but sounds consonant because blues scales tend to always sound in key, and it also sorta feels like the blues scale in F.

    c) The combination of Bb-D-F-Ab (the 4, 13, 1 and b3 of the IV chord) also leans towards the feeling of a natural minor scale for the tonic chord (since these notes are the b7, 9, 4, and b6 of the tonic), and blues is all about major and minor laid on top of each other.

    d) that bVII triad (which is really what the IV of IV is) also has a nice sus4 feeling in relation to the tonic and the IV chord. it "feels" more modal because you're emphasizing notes that would be avoided in conventional diatonic harmony. a lot of jazz players use the blues scale based on the 5th degree of the scale (so it's like using a G minor blues over a C blues progression) because it has a more modern sound. that Bb triad really implies a G minor blues scale. when you put together the weak IV cadence and some substitutions, you get the essence of gospel as a quasi-modal style, which i guess it is in a way.

    I know there are more reasons. And I'm also pretty positive that most gospel players don't think about it this way, but that's okay.
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    wgcabp
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    RE: OT: small theory question 2005/12/07 09:23:16 (permalink)

    ORIGINAL: gourdjopy
    a) when you're using a fourth substitution with triads, the IV of IV in F is a Bb triad, which is pulling in the dominant seventh note from C (and blues uses dominant 7ths a lot, as you know)

    Wrench...

    Gourd's all over this one....great stuff.

    But hey Gourd, not to further confuse the issue, but the quote above the IV/IV in F is Eb, not Bb. Unless I didn't catch what you were saying.

    And Wrench, this kind of stuff is sorta where traditional theory and so called "modern-pop" theory part ways. What this site is doing (and does it well, BTW) is trying to explain in traditional theory-speak a lot of the modern pop-rock-blues-gospel progressions. This stuff is a long ways away from Bach, which is the kind of theory you learn in school.

    So, put it another way: How many tunes have you heard that go (for instance) C -> Bbmaj -> Abmaj -> Gmaj -> C

    This site is simply trying to makes sense of such kinds of modern progressions using traditional theory notation, and once again, they did it very well.

    Sorry I don't have time to delve into it more for you. I'll come back to it if you like. But once again, Gourd's all over it...

    WC
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    wrench45us
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    RE: OT: small theory question 2005/12/07 09:27:04 (permalink)

    thanks johann

    that was a very nice detailed answer
    i had an intuitive feel for some of that
    but was too lazy to work it out
    and you laid it out really well
    with a lot of information new to me
    thanks

    there's a few other sections i found at the site that i'll be exploring soon as well
    one i can't find now had to do with something like backfilling using the circle of 5ths
    you want to get ffrom C to G, but you back fill C A D G to get there

    and in a few days teh whole Coltrane changes
    http://www.angelfire.com/fl4/moneychords/coltrain.html
    that looks really interesting
    but i'm not ready for that


     


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    wgcabp
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    RE: OT: small theory question 2005/12/07 09:38:46 (permalink)
    Wrench,

    One more thing.

    In the key of C, the Bbmaj chord gets used a lot in (once again) "modern" chord progressions. Just think of it this way: The only way you can explain the existance of the Bb chord in the key of C is to notate it as a IV/IV. Once again, not the sort of thing you run into in freshman theory class, but here it makes tons of sense.

    Moving around the "circle of fourths" is a very common way of making a song structure for modern progressions, as Gourd pointed out. It's just from a theory standpoint they have to explain it SOMEHOW, thus the whole IV/IV -> IV -> I structure. Once again, how many tunes have you heard in the key of C that resolve Bbmaj -> Fmaj -> C. There you have it.

    WC
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    hypolydien
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    RE: OT: small theory question 2005/12/07 09:53:41 (permalink)
    Good job gourd,


    Nice stuff here.
    I have always just accepted that one as... well it's sounds good that's just the way it goes.
    I think in ancient music they also made use plagal cadences.

    I especially like the bVII(IV / IV) = 7sus/I theory, which relates the IV/VI to the I chord.
    Check this, take this classic plagal cadence, "Yesterday" :

    Dmin7 G7 / Bb F

    This Bb - F is typically plagal. Now take the Bb chord and replace it by Bb\C.

    Dmin7 G7 / Bb\C F

    That gives you a form of V - I cadence and the sound is very similar.

    The IV also has a grace note quality down to the I, especially in the 2nd inversion.

    C F A resolves on
    C E G

    This I think also makes it a very strong chord movement.

    post edited by hypolydien - 2005/12/07 09:59:49
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    gourdjopy
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    RE: OT: small theory question 2005/12/07 10:01:56 (permalink)
    ORIGINAL: wgcabp
    But hey Gourd, not to further confuse the issue, but the quote above the IV/IV in F is Eb, not Bb. Unless I didn't catch what you were saying.


    sorry, i was unclear. i meant you're in the key of C, and F is the IV chord. all my examples were in "god's key."
    #7
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