The part I am having trouble with is the idea that after you flip polarity, how do you describe the phase?
While the statement "a 180* phase shift on a sinusoidal signal is not the same as flipped polarity" makes sense to me, I can not reconcile, or articulate an idea of how you can flip the polarity of a signal and not consider that the phase angle has shifted to compliment the orientation to the baseline.
If I remind myself that phase is frequency dependent than there is always a periodic "per time duration" consideration whereas with polarity flips there is no time change involved. Is it that simple? If there is no time involved there is no "angle" to consider a relation to a baseline to?
I know I am asking the question in a goofed up way... but it is still a sincere question. :-)